Bank P.O Previous Year Question Paper: Logical Reasoning

Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. 1): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Q1. A school bus driver starts from the school, drives 2 km towards North, takes a left turn and drives for 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives for 8 km before taking a left turn again and driving for further 5 km. The driver finally takes a left turn and drives 1 km before stopping. How far and towards which direction should the driver drive to reach the school again?
1) 3km towards North
2) 7 km towards East
3)6 km towards South
4) 6 km towards West
5) 5 km towards North

Directions (Q.2-3): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.
A, B, C, D, E and F live on different floors in the same building having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered one, the floor above it is numbered two, and so on, and the topmost floor is numbered 6).
A lives on an even-numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which D and F live. F lives on a floor above D’s floor. D does not live on the floor numbered two. B does not live on an odd-numbered floor. C does not live on any of the floors below F’s floor. E does not live on a floor immediately above or immediately below the floor on which B lives.

Q2. Who among the following live on the floors exactly between D and F?
1) E, B
2)C,B
3) E,C
4)A,E
5)B,A

Q3. On which of the following floors does B live?
1) Sixth
2) Fourth
3) Second
4) F
5) Cannot be determined

Directions (Q. 4-5): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a five-letter English word (which may or may not be a meaningful English word), there are two letters between L and P. S is not placed immediately next to L. There is only one letter between S and A. S is towards the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to E.

Q4. Which of the following is correct with respect to the word thus formed?
1) E is at one of the extreme ends of the word.
2) P is not placed immediately next to A.
3) There are two letters between A and E in the word thus formed.
4) P is placed second to the right of E.
5) None is correct

Q5. Which of the following words will be formed based on the given conditions?
1) SPAEL
2) PEALS
3) LEAPS
4) SEPAL
5) LAPSE

Directions (Q. 6-10): In each question below are given two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer.
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

(Q. 6-7):
Statements: All gliders are parachutes.
No parachute is an airplane. All airplanes are helicopters.
Q6. Conclusions:
I. No helicopter is a glider.
II. All parachutes being helicopters is a possibility.

Q7. Conclusions:
I. No glider is an airplane.
II. All gliders being helicopters is a possibility.

Q8. Statements: Some mails are chats.
All updates are chats.
Conclusions:
I All mails being updates is a possibility.
II. No update is a mail.

(Q. 9-10):
Statements: No stone is metal.
Some metals are papers. All papers are glass.

Q9. Conclusions:
I. No glass is metal.
II. At least some glasses are metals.

Q10. Conclusions:
I. All stones being glass is a possibility.
II. No stone is paper.

Directions (Q. 11-15): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)

Input: sine 88 71 cos theta 14 56 gamma delta 26
Step I. cos sine 71 theta 14 56 gamma delta 26 88
Step II. delta cos sine theta 14 56 gamma 26 88 71
Step III. gamma delta cos sine theta 14 26 88 71 56
Step IV. sine gamma delta cos theta 14 88 71 56 26
StepV. theta sine gamma delta cos 88 71 56 26 14
Step V is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input for the questions:
Input: for 52 all 96 25 jam road 15 hut 73 bus stop 38 46 (All the numbers given in the arrangement are two-digit numbers.)

Q11. Which word/number would be at 8th position from the right in step IV?
1) 15
2) road
3) hut
4) jam
5) stop

Q12. Which step number would be the following output? bus all for 52 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73
1)There will be no such step.
2) III
3) II
4) V
5) VI

Q13. Which of the following would be step VII?
1).stop road jam hut for bus all 15 96 73 5246 38 25
2) road jam hut for bus all stop 15 25 38 46 52 73 96
3) stop road jam hut for bus all 96 73 5246 38 25 15
4). jam hut for bus all 25 road stop 15 96 73 52 46 38
5) There will be no such step.

Q14. Which word/number would be at 6th position from the left in step V?
1)25 2) stop 3) jam 4) all 5) road
15. Which of the following would be step III?
1) hut for bus all 25 jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46
2) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut 38 stop 96 46 73 52
3) hut for bus all jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46 25
4) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73 52
5) None of these

Directions (Q.16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Representatives of eight different banks, viz A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them is from a different bank, viz UCO Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Bank of Maharashtra, Canara Bank, Syndicate Bank, Punjab National Bank, Bank of India and Dena Bank.
F sits second to the right of the representative of Canara Bank. The representative of Bank of India is an immediate neighbour of the representative of Canara Bank. Two person sit between the representative of Bank of India and B. C and E are immediate neighbours. Neither C nor E is an immediate neighbour of either B or the representative of Canara Bank. The representative of Bank of Maharashtra sits second to the right of D. D is the representative of neither Canara Bank nor Bank of India. G and the representative of UCO Bank are immediate neighbours. B is not the representative of UCO Bank. Only one person sits between C and the representative of Oriental Bank of Commerce.
H sits third to the left of the representative of Dena Bank. The representative of Punjab National Bank sits second to the left of the representative of Syndicate Bank.

Q16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) H-UCO Bank
2) A-Canara Bank
3) D – Bank of Maharashtra
4) E – Syndicate Bank
5) F – Punjab National Bank

Q17. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
1) B is the representative of Bank of Maharashtra.
2) C sits second to the right of H.
3) The representative of Dena Bank sits on2 the immediate left of the representative of UCO Bank.
4) A sits second to the right of the representative of Bank of India.
5) The representatives of Bank of Maharashtra and Syndicate Bank are immediate neighbours.

Q18. Who among the following sit exactly between B and the representative of Bank of India?
1) A and the representative of UCO Bank
2) F and G
3) H and the representative of Bank of Maharashtra
4) H and G
5) Representatives of Syndicate Bank and Oriental Bank of Commerce

Q19. Who among the following is the representative of Oriental Bank of Commerce?
1) A
2) C
3) H
4) G
5) D

Q20. Who amongst the following sits second to the left of B?
1) C
2) H
3) The representative of Canara Bank
4) The representative of Punjab National Bank
5) G

Directions (Q. 21-25): Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Q21. How many daughters does W have?
I. B and D are the sisters of M.
II. M’s father T is the husband of W.
III. Out of the three children which T has, only one is a boy.
1) Only I and III are sufficient to answer the question.
2) All I, II and III are required to answer the question.
3) Only II and III are sufficient to answer the question.
4) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III
5) Only I and II are sufficient to answer the question.

Q22. Who among A, B, C, D, E and F, each having a different height, is the tallest?
I. .B is taller than A but shorter than E.
II. Only two of them are shorter than C.
III.. D is taller than only F.
1) Only I and II are sufficient to answer the question.
2) Only I and III are sufficient to answer the question.
3) Only II and III are sufficient to answer the question.
4) All I, II and III are required to answer the question.
5) All I, II and III even together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Q23. Towards which direction is Village J from Village W?
I. Village R is to the west of Village W and to the north of Village T.
II. Village Z is to the east of Village J and to the south of Village T.
III. Village M is to the north-east of Village J and to the north of Village Z.
1) Only III is sufficient to answer the question.
2) Only II and III sufficient to answer the question.
3) All I, II and III are required to answer the question.
4) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III.
5) None of these

Q24. On which day of the week did Suresh visit Chennai? (Assume that the week starts from Monday.)
I. Suresh took a leave on Wednesday.
II. Suresh visited Chennai the day after his mother’s visit to his house. DL Suresh’s mother visited
III. Suresh’s house on neither Monday nor Thursday.
1) Only II and III are sufficient to answer the question.
2) Only I and II are sufficient to answer the question.
3) Only I and III are sufficient to answer the question.
4) All I, II and HI are required to answer the question.
5) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III.

Q25. How is ‘go’ written in a code language?
I. ‘now or never again’ is written as ‘torn ka na sa’ in that code language.
II.’you come again now’ is written as ‘ja ka ta sa’ in thatcode language.
III. ‘again go now or never’ is written as ‘na ha ka sa torn’ in that code language.
1) Only I and III are sufficient to answer the question.
2) Only II and III are sufficient to answer the question.
3) Only I and II are sufficient to answer the question.
4) All I, II and III are required to answer the question.
5) None of these

Directions (Q. 26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are going to three destinations Delhi, Chennai and Hyderabad in three different vehicles – Honda City, Swift D’Zire and Ford Ikon. There are three females among them-one in each car. There are at least two persons in each car.
R is not travelling with Q and W. T, a male, is travelling with only Z and they are not going to Chennai. P is travelling in Honda City and is going to Hyderabad. S is the sister of P and is travelling by Ford Ikon. V and R are travelling together. W is not going to Chennai.

Q26. Members of which of the following cars are going to Chennai?
1) Honda City
2) Swift D’ Zire
3) Ford Ikon
4)Either Swift D’Zire or Ford Ikon
5) None of these

Q27. In which car are four members travelling?
1) None
2) Honda City
3) SwiftD’Zire
4) Ford Ikon
5) Either Honda City or Ford Ikon

Q28. Which of the following combinations represents the three female members?
1) QSZ
2) WSZ
3) PSZ
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these

Q29. Who is travelling with W?
l) Only Q
2) Only P
3) Both P and Q
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these

Q30. Members of which of the following combinations are travelling in Honda City?
1)PRS
2) PQW
3) PWS
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

Q31. It has been reported in recent years that a very large number of seats in engineering colleges in the country remain vacant at the end of the admission session. Which of the following may be the probable cause of the above effect?
1) There has-been a considerable decrease in hiring of engineering graduates due to economic slowdown in the recent years.
2) Students have always preferred to complete graduation in three years, time instead of four years for engineering.
3) The Govt. has recently decided to provide post- qualification professional training to all engineering graduates at its own cost.
4) There has always been a very poor success rate among the engineering students.
5) None of these

Q32. The condition of the roads in the city has deteriorated considerably during the first two months of monsoon and most of the roads have developed big potholes. Which of the following can be a possible effect of the above cause?
1) The municipal corporation had repaired all the roads in the city before the onset of monsoon with good quality material.
2) A large number of people have developed spine- related injuries after regularly commuting long distances by road within the city.
3) The municipal corporation has been careful in choosing the contractors for repairing roads in the past.
4) People always complain about potholed roads during the monsoon months.
5) None of these

Q33. Majority of the students who appeared in the final examination of postgraduate course in management in the local college have secured first class, which is comparatively higher than the performance of students of other management colleges in the state. .
Which of the following may indicate that the results are not in line with the general trend?
1) The students of the local college are qualitatively better than those of other colleges.
2) The authorities of the other management colleges in the state are stricter in their standard of evaluation.
3) The students of other management colleges in the state performed better than the students of the local college in all the previous examinations.
4) The local management college recently retrenched many of its regular faculty members.
5) None of these

Q34. It has been reported in many leading newspapers that the current year’s monsoon may be below the expected level as many parts of the country are still not getting adequate rainfall.
Which of the following can be a possible fallout of the above situation?
1) People from those affected areas with less rainfall may migrate to urban areas.
2) Govt.. may announce exgratia payment to all the farmers affected in these areas.
3) Govt. may declare these areas as drought-affected.
4) People may blame the govt. and agitate for not getting adequate water for cultivation.
5) None of these

Q35. There has been a spate of rail accidents in India in the recent months killing large numbers of passengers and injuring many more. This has raised serious doubts on the railway’s capability of providing safety to travellers. Which of the following statements substantiates the views expressed in the above statement?
1) Indian Railways is known for providing best comfort to its passenger.
2) People have no option other than travelling by rail over long distances.
3) The railway tracks at many places have been found to be stressed due to wear and tear in the recent times.
4) Local residents are always the first to provide a helping hand to the passengers in the event of such disasters.
5) None of these

Q36. A few travellers were severely beaten up by villagers recently in a remote rural part of the state as the villagers found the movement of the travellers suspicious. The district authority has sent a police team to nab the culprits. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statement? (An inference is something which is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given facts.)
1) The villagers dislike the presence of strangers in their vicinity.
2) Villagers are generally suspicious in nature.
3) Travellers prefer to visit countryside.
4) The govt. generally provides protection to travellers across the country.
5) None of these

Q37. There has been a considerable drop in sales of four- wheelers during the past six months when compared to the number of four-wheelers sold during this period last year.
Which of the following can the probable cause(s) of the above phenomenon?
(A) The govt. imposed higher excise duty on four- wheelers at the beginning of this year.
(B) The petrol prices have risen considerably during the past eight months.
(C) The rate of interest on home and car loans have been rising for the past seven months.
1) All (A), (B) and (C)
2) Only (A) and (C)
3) Only (B) and (C)
4) (B) Only

5) (A) Only

Q38. There is an alarming trend of skewed sex ratio against women in India during the past decade and the situation may go out of hand if adequate steps are not taken to stop female foeticide.
Which of the following can be an effective step to reverse the trend?
(A)The govt. should immediately completely ban the use of scanners/sonography on expecting mothers at all health centres.
(B) The govt. should announce a substantial incentive scheme for couples who have at least one girl child.
(C) The govt.should launches a nationwide campaign to create awareness against female foeticide.
1) Only (A)
2) Only (A) and (B)
3) Only (B) and (C)
4) All (A), (B) and (C)
5) None of these

Q39. A very large number of technically qualified young Indians are coming out of colleges every year though there are not enough opportunities for them to get gainful employment.
Which of the following contradicts the views expressed in the above statement?
1) Technically qualified persons are far superior to those with standard degrees like B A/ B Sc / B Com etc.
2) The govt. has not done effective planning for engaging technically qualified personnel while authorizing the setting up of technical colleges.
3) huge gap exists between the level of competence of technically qualified graduates and requirements of the industry.
4) Majority of the technically qualified persons are migrating from India to developed countries for better opportunities.
5) None of these

Q40. The govt. appealed to all cititzens to use potable water judiciously as there is an acute shortage in supply. Excessive use may lead to huge scarcity incoming months. Which of the following assumption is implicit in the above statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.)
1) People may igonore the appeal and continue using water as per their consideration.
2) Govt. may be able to tap those who do not resopond to the appeal.
3) Govt. may be able to put in place alternate sources of water in the event of crisis.
3) A large number of people may positively respond to the govt’s appeal and help tide over the crisis.
4) Only the poor are going to suffer from this shortage of water supply.

Answer Key
1.5) 2. 4) 3. 1) 4. 4) 5. 3) 6. 2) 7. 5) 8. 1) 9. 2) 10. 1) 11. 2) 12. 3) 13. 3) 14. 1) 15. 4) 16. 2) 17. 5) 18. 3) 19. 5) 20. 4) 21. 3) 22. 4) 23. 5) 24. 5) 25. 1) 26. 3) 27. 1) 28. 4) 29. 3) 30. 2) 31. 1) 32. 2) 33. 3) 34. 3) 35. 3) 36. 4) 37. 3) 38. 3) 39. 4) 40. 4)

CDS Previous year question paper English-2015

The “Combined Defence Services”Examination (CDS) is conducted twice a year by the Union Public Service Commission for recruitment into the Indian Military Academy, Officers Training Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Indian Air Force Academy. The Notification for the examination is usually released in the months of October and June, and the examinations are conducted in February and November respectively. Only unmarried graduates are eligible to sit for the exam. Successful candidates are admitted into the respective Academies after an interview conducted by the Services Selection Board (SSB).

Click here to download: CDS Previous year English paper

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Question Paper -2013

In IBPS Examination Logical Reasoning consists of question types which test both your mathematical and logical abilities. These questions are there is most of the examinations, and present an interesting challenge to students. In IBPS Examination a situation which question to skip and to solve question in examination.

Q.1)  How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ’DEIV’ using each letter only once?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

Q.2) If “Star is called Planet”  “Planet is called Satellite”, “Satellite is called Earth”, “Earth is called Comet”, then ‘Earth’ is classified under which category?
(1) Galaxy
(2) Comet
(3) Planet
(4) Star
(5) Satellite

Q.3) In a certain code ROPE is written as %57$, DOUBT is written as 35#8* and LIVE is written as’@24$. How is TROUBLE written in that code?
(1) *%5#8@$
(2) *%#58@$
(3) *%5#8@4
(4) *%#58$@
(5) None of these

Q.4) If in the number 589463271 all the odd digits are firs arranged in ascending order and then all the even digit are arranged in ascending order, which digit will be sec and to the right of fifth digit from the right end?
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 2
(4) 4
(5) None of these

Q.5) If the letters of the word VERTICAL are arranged alphabetically, how many letters will remain at the same position?
(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One
(5) None of these

Q.6) How many such pairs of letters are there in the won EXAMINATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word, as they have in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

Q.7) If it is possible to make a three-digit number from th third, the fifth and the sixth digits of the number 30651972 using each digit only once, which is the square of a odd number the last digit of that three-digit number 1 your answer. If no such number can be formed you answer is 4 and if more than one such number can be formed your answer is 8.
(1) 1
(2) 9
(3) 6
(4) 4
(5) 8

Q.8) If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the third, the sixth, the ninth and the tenth letters of the word PARENTHESIS, using each letter only once,  letter of the word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your answer is X and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is Y.
(1) R
(2) T
(3) S
(4) X
(5) Y

Q.9) Four of the following two are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) Iron
(2) Silver
(3) Copper
(4) Mercury
(5) Aluminum

Q.10) In a certain code HUMANITY is written as BNVIZUJO. How is EQUATION written that code?
(1) BVRFUJPQ
(2) BVRFOPJU
(3) BUVJPRFO
(4) BVJURFPO
(5) None of these

Direction (Q. 11-15): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Q.11) Statements:
Some pens are sticks.
Some sticks are canes.
All canes are scales.
No scale is weight.

Conclusions:
I.  Some sticks are scales.
II. No stick is scale.
III. No cane is weight.

(1) Only either I or II follows
(2) Only I & II follow
(3) Only either I or II and III follow
(4) All I, II & III follow
(5) None of these

Q.12) Statements: 

Some folders are boxes.
Some boxes are bags.
All bags are containers.
Some bags are sacks.

Conclusions:
I. No folder is bag.
II. Some boxes are containers.
III. Some sacks are containers.

(1) Only I & II follow
(2) Only II & III follow
(3) Only I & III follow
(4) All follow
(5) None follows’

Q.13) Statements:
Some insects are pests.
All pests are birds.
No bird is amphibian.
All amphibians are animals.

Conclusions:
I. No animal is bird.
II. Some insects are birds.
III. No pests are amphibians.

(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only II & III follow
(5) None of these

Q.14) Statements:
Some paints are colours.
All colours are solutions.
Some solutions are liquids.
All liquids are solids.

Conclusions:
I. Some paints are solutions.
II. Some colours are liquids.
III. Some solutions are solids.

(1) Only I & II follow
(2) Only II & III follow
(3) All I, II & III follow
(4) None follows
(5) None these

Q.15) Statements:
All locks are keys.
All keys are doors.
Some doors are windows.
Some windows are floors.

Conclusions:
I.  Some keys are windows.
II. No floor is door.
III. No lock is window.

(1) None follow
(2) Only I follow
(3) Only I & II follow
(4) Only III follow
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 16-20): Below are given two arrangements I & II. The elements in the two arrangements written one below the other are corresponding elements. Study both the arrangements carefully to answer these questions.

 I: T $ I E # D R H F @ % J M * D L
II: 5 8 Q 4 A K 3 U 6 W Y 1 7 V 2 9

Q.16) Four of the following are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangements and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1) *2L
(2) I4#
(3) H6@
(4) EAD
(5) M1%

Q.17) If  T8: 51, MV: 7A then FW : ?
(1) 6@
(2) 6%
(3) Y@
(4) YJ
(5) None of these

Q.18) If all the elements in the first half of the arrangement I are replaced by the corresponding elements in arrangement II, which element will be fourth to the left of eighth element from the right in arrangement I?

(1) #
(2) E
(3) 4
(4) A
(5) None of these

Q.19) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangements?

TI$    QA4    # R D    ?

(1) H@F
(2) UW6
(3) 36U
(4) RFH
(5) None of these

Q.20) If in arrangement I the order of all the elements is reversed, which element will be third to the left of eleventh from the left end?

(1) F
(2) 6
(3) H
(4) U
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 21-25): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

Eight friends P, R, T, V, W, J, F & K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. T is third to the right of  F and second to the left of W, P & R are not neighbours of  W. R is third to the right of K. J is between W & K.

Q.21) Which of the following is the correct position of T with respect to K’s position?
(1) Second to the left
(2) Third to the left
(3) Third to the right
(4) Second to the right
(5) None of these

Q.22) Which of the following pairs has the first person to the immediate left of the second person?

(1) RP
(2) FJ
(3) VT
(4) JW
(5) JK

Q.23)  Who is to the immediate right of F?

(1) J
(2) P
(3) R
(4) V
(5) None of these

Q.24) Which of the following is the correct position of V?

(1) Second to the left of R
(2) Between T & P
(3) To the immediate right of W
(4) To the immediate left of W
(5) None of these

Q.25. Who is second to the right of J?

(1) F
(2) V
(3) W
(4) P
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 26-80): In these questions the symbols @, #, $,.and © are used with different meanings as follows:

‘A@B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’.
‘A#B’ means ‘A is either smaller than, or equal to B’.
‘A$B’ means ‘A is greater than B’.
‘A*B’ means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B’.
‘A©B’ means ‘A is neither greater  nor smaller than B’.

In each question, three statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by two conclusions I & II. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion(s) is/are definitely true.

Give answer (1): if only conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2): if only conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) : if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
Give answer (4): if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
Give answer (5): if both conclusions I and II are true.

Q.26)  Statements: H#Q, Q@F, L$F

Conclusions:
I. L$H
II. H#F

Q.27)  Statements: J$T, T@V, V#M

Conclusions:
I. T#M
II. J©M

Q.28) Statements: U#D, D@R, R©T

Conclusions:
I. U@R
II. T$D

Q29) Statements: M*L, L$K, K@R

Conclusions:
I. I. M *R
II. M@R

Q.30) Statements: J@N, N©W, W$V

Conclusions:
I. J©V
II. J@W

Directions (Q. 31-35): Each of the questions below

consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

 
Give answer (1): if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2): if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3): if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4): if the data in both the Statements I and lI are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (e): if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.31) Who among five boys Abhishek, Rajesh, Karan, Nitin and Vikas, each having different height, is second to the tallest among them?
Statements:

  1. Only Rajesh is taller than Karan.
  2. Nitin and Vikas are shorter than Abhishek.

Q.32) How many sons does Anita have?
Statements:

  1. Anita is mother of X, who is brother of Y.
  2. Anita’s daughter Nikita has only two brothers.

Q.33) What is the code for ‘where’ in the code language?
Statements:

  1. In the code language ‘where is she’ is written as ‘ka mate’ and ‘she is good’ is written as ‘te ka ro’.
  2. In the code language ‘where are you going’ is written as ‘lama pa je’ and ‘where is the girl’ is written as ‘cha fa mate’.

Q.34) How many children are there in the row of children facing North?
Statements:

  1. Sangita is third from the left end of the row and is third to the left of Hasina.
  2. Rakesh is fifth from the right end of the row and is third to the right of Hasina.

Q.35) How is Nandini related to Santosh?
Statements:

  1. Nandini’s brother is the only grandson of Santosh’s father.
  2. Nandini has only one brother.

Directions (Q. 36-38): Use the following information to answer these questions.

‘A + B’ means ‘A is father of  B’.
‘A x B’ means ‘A is daughter of  B’.
‘A *. B’ means ‘A is brother of  B’.
‘A – B’ means ‘A is wife of  B’.

Q.36)  In ‘L-M + K ÷ F’ how is ‘Ferreted to ‘L’?
(1) Son
(2) Daughter
(3) Nephew
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

Q.37)  Which of the following expressions means ‘J is son of D’?

(1) D + L × H ÷ J
(2) J ÷ P × D
(3) J ÷ P – D
(4) T – D + J
(5) None of these

Q.38)  In ‘H + K × R’, how if ‘R’ related to ‘ H’?
(1) Husband
(2) Brother
(3) Wife
(4) Mother
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 39-40): These questions are based on the following set of numbers.

348    436    652   198    563

Q.39) If the first and the third digit in each number are interchanged, which number will be the smallest?
(1) 348
(2) 436
(3) 652
(4) 198
(5) 563

Q.40)  If the first two digits in each number are interchanged and then the newly formed numbers are arranged in descending order, which number will be second?
(1) 348
(2) 436
(3) 652
(4) 198
(5) 563

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ANSWERS 

1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (1)     4. (4)     5. (5)     6. (2)      7. (5)    8.(1)    9. (4)     10. (2)     11. (2)     12. (2)    13. (4)    14. (5)      15.(5)    16.(5)    17. (2)     18. (4)     19. (3)   20. (1) 21. (5)     22. (5)     23.(2)   24. (4)   25. (1)   26. (1)   27. (4)   28. (5)    29. (3)    30. (2)    31.(4)   32. (2)    33. (3)    34. (5)    35. (4)   36. (4)    37. (2)  38. (3)   39. (3)   40. (5)